Questions related to the Priesthood

(last update: 12 May 1998)

  1. How different is the position of the other Christians on the ministerial priesthood?

  2. Does the ministerial priesthood contradict the fact that Jesus is the only mediator between God and men (1 Tim 2:5)?

  3. Do Eze 22:26 and 2 Chron 13:9 show that the Catholic's ministerial priesthood is a false institution?

  4. Why must the Catholic priests and bishops remain celibate if The New Testament says that a bishop can marry and raise children (1 Tim 3:2,4)?

  5. Why do Catholics call their priests "Fathers" if the Bible forbids to do so (Matthew 23:9)?

  6. Why can't the Catholic Church ordain women as priestess?

  7. How do we explain the sex scandals committed by some priests? How can God let such sinners to be His priests if Pro. 15:8 says: The sacrifice of the wicked is an abomination to the Lord

Questions and Answers:

  1. How different is the position of the other Christians on the ministerial priesthood?

    The Eastern Orthodox Church, the Oriental Orthodox Churches (Armenian, Coptic, Ethiopian, Jacobites Syrian and Malankara Syrian) and the Assyrian Orthodox Church of the East recognize the priesthood equivalent to the Catholic's ministerial priesthood. On the other hand Protestant churches reject the ministerial priesthood because it is not mentioned directly in the New Testament (although there are allusions to it, refer again to the article). They also reject the sacrificial nature of the Eucharist, making the ministerial priesthood an obsolete office.

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  2. Does the ministerial priesthood contradict the fact that Jesus is the only mediator between God and men (1 Tim 2:5)?

    The Catholic Church teaches that Jesus is the only true and High Priest while those Catholic priests are only His ministers (CCC # 1410, 1545). Thus they do not replace His Priesthood. For comparison, any Christian can participate in bringing the good news that Jesus is the only Saviour; so he/she does play a role in the salvation of a person without becoming a saviour. Other comparison is only God can create life, yet God gives all living things the ability to reproduce itself.

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  3. Do Eze 22:26 and 2 Chr 13:9 show that the Catholic's ministerial priesthood is a false institution?

    Eze 22:26 says:

    Her priests have done violence to my law and have profaned my holy things; they have made no distinction between the holy and the common, neither have they taught the difference between the unclean and the clean, and they have disregarded my sabbaths, so that I am profaned among them.

    Reading the whole Ezekiel 22 (not just verse 26) shows that it describes the abominable of Jerusalem during Ezekiel time which also includes their priests. The prophet Ezekiel denounces the whole people of Israel for the abominations they practiced in Egypt, in the Wilderness, and in Canaan (Eze 20). For these Juda shall be consumed by fire, and Jerusalem shall be exterminated by the sword (Eze 21). Abominable is the immorality of Jerusalem (Eze 22), but Juda is more guilty than Israel has ever been (Eze 23).

    2 Chr 13:9 says:

    Have you not driven out the priests of the Lord, the sons of Aaron, and the Levites, and made priests for yourself like the people of other lands? Whoever comes to consecrate himself with a young bull or seven rams becomes a priest of what are no gods.

    This verse is addressed to Jeroboam who casted out the levitical priests and appointed his own priests (2 Chr 11:13-15). After the death of Solomon, his kingdom split into two and Jeroboam became the king of the northern kingdom. He established his headquarters at Sichem, and then added a religious schism. Fearing that the pilgrimages to the temple in Jerusalem (which was not under his rule) prescribed by the Law might make his people go back to their old allegiance, he decided to provide places of worship within their own boundaries. He set up two golden calves to be worshipped, one in Bethel and the other in Dan. He also built temples in the high places and had them served by priests selected not from the Levites (1 Kings 12:26-31).
    Both Eze 22:26 and 2 Chr 13:9 describe events which already took place and are not prophecies. Thus they definitely do not refer to Catholic's ministerial priesthood.

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  4. Why must the Catholic priests and bishops remain celibate if The New Testament says that a bishop can marry and raise children (1 Tim 3:2,4)?

    The celibacy is not a doctrine but a discipline imposed on the priests and bishops of the Latin (western) rite Catholic Church. Married men can be ordained as priests in the eastern rite Catholic Church, but their bishops must be celibate. The purpose of celibacy is to give oneself entirely to God and men. It is not contrary to the Bible because they do not marry for sake of the Kingdom of God (Matthew 19:12). As for 1 Tim 3:2, it does not indicate that a man has to marry and to have children in order to become a bishop.

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  5. Why do Catholics call their priests "Fathers" if the Bible forbids to do so (Matthew 23:9)?

    Matthew 23:9 says: And call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven.

    If we follow this verse strictly, then we cannot use the term "father" to call our biological father either. Even if this one is excluded, it is not a total ban to call other men as "fathers". In Acts 7:2, Stephen used the term "brothers and fathers" to refer to those who falsely accused him. Jesus also used the same term to refer to Abraham (John 8:56). The priests are called fathers because in a sense they are the spiritual fathers of the baptised Catholics, like Paul relation to Timothy (Phil 2:22) and to the Christians in Corinth (1 Cor 4:15). The term "father" in Matthew 23:9 should refer to the false gods on earth. Similarly the terms "teacher" in verse 8 and "master" in verse 10, both refer to false messiahs and can definitely be used (and are being used by all Christians) to refer to some persons.

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  6. Why can't the Catholic Church ordain women as priestess?

    The ministerial priesthood is modelled after the Aaronic priesthood of the Old Testament. Only Aaron and his sons (and their male descendants) can become priests (Num 18:1). In John 17:19 Jesus consecrated his disciples (minus Judas) who were all males. Some might say that Jesus did not have female disciples because of the social-cultural reason. However, it is very unlikely Jesus will obey such society made regulation. If He did not hesitate to ask a Samaritan woman for a drink (John 4:7-9) which is against the Jewish custom, then definitely He will have females among His twelve disciples if it is a divine plan.

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  7. How do we explain the sex scandals committed by some priests? How can God let such sinners to be His priests if Pro. 15:8 says: The sacrifice of the wicked is an abomination to the Lord

    Their wrong behaviour is truly regretable. Note that the media tends to expose the scandals but hardly mentions about those priests (and bishops) with good outstanding behaviour. Catholic priests are just humans and like any of us they are also subject to temptation to sin and some (like any of us) may fail. God can use anybody to be His instrument. In the Old Testament, He used a pagan Balaam to bless the Israelites while Moses was still alive (Num 22-25). Some of the Levitical priests of the Old Testament are sinners (cf. 1 Sam 2:12-16, 22), God will not abolish the priesthood just because some of the members become sinners.
    It is Jesus Himself (the eternal High Priest, Heb. 7:24) acting through the ministry of the priests who offers the Eucharistic sacrifice (CCC # 1410). Therefore a sinful Catholic priest does not make the Eucharistic sacrifice abomination to the Lord as stated in Pro. 15:8.

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